yes; e.g. 1/6 / 1/3 = 1/2
Yes, but only if the two fractions are the same or equivalent fractions (other than 0).
If the fractions are both proper fractions ... equivalent to less than 1 ... thenthat's always true ... the product is always less than either factor.
14
There can be no answer because it is not necessarily true. Suppose f1 and f2 are two fractions.Suppose f1 = 1/2, which is less than 1;suppose f2 = -1/4, which is also less than 1.Then f1/f2 = -2 which is, in fact, smaller than either fraction. Go figure!
the quotient is always greater than the either fraction because any time when you multiply either number with 1 you will get the whole entire universe heheheheh
It need not be. The numbers 1/2 and (-1/2) are both fractions less than 1 but their quotient is -1, which is less than both the fractions.
Yes. Consider two negative fractions. Since they are negative, both are less than 1. But their product is positive and so greater than either.
It is greater as for example 3/4 divided by 1/4 is equal to 3
Yes, but only if the two fractions are the same or equivalent fractions (other than 0).
There can be no reason because your assertion is not true.For example, 1/6 and 1/2 are both fractions less than one. But their quotient is (1/6)/(1/2) = (1/6)*(2/1) = 2/6 = 1/3. And that is not more than 1/2.
The quotient of the two fractions.
The statement is simply not true.Consider 2/9 and 2/3, both are fractions which are less than 1.Their quotient is (2/9) / (2/3) = (2/9)*(3/2) = 3/9 = 1/3The last time I checked, 1/3 was not greater than 2/3. I have no idea where you are getting your rubbish assertions from.
No.
If the fractions are both proper fractions ... equivalent to less than 1 ... thenthat's always true ... the product is always less than either factor.
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It can be but need not be.
2/x - 9