Trig functions have their own special derivatives that you will have to memorize. For instance: the derivative of sinx is cosx. The derivative of cosx is -sinx The derivative of tanx is sec2x The derivative of cscx is -cscxcotx The derivative of secx is secxtanx The derivative of cotx is -csc2x
You can take out any constant from a derivative. In other words, this is the same as 5 times the derivative of sec x.
Tanx was created in 1972-10.
(tanx+cotx)/tanx=(tanx/tanx) + (cotx/tanx) = 1 + (cosx/sinx)/(sinx/cosx)=1 + cos2x/sin2x = 1+cot2x= csc2x This is a pythagorean identity.
I assume you mean (tanx+1)^2 In which case, (tanx+1)^2=tan2x+2tanx+1
you need this identities to solve the problem..that is something you have to memorized sec x= 1/cosx 1-cos2x= sin2x tanx= sin x/cosx also, sin 2x= (sinx)(sinx) sec x - cosx= sin x tanx (1/cosx)-cosx= sin x tanx .. 1-cos2x / cosx=sin x tanx sin2x/ cosx= sin x tanx (sin x/cox)( sin x)= sin x tanx tanx sinx= sin x tanx
Sec x dx = sec x (secx + tanx)/ (secx + tanx) dx . therefore the answer is ln |secx + tanx|
d/dx(uv)=u*dv/dx+v*du/dxd/dx(secxtanx)=secx*[d/dx(tanx)]+tanx*[d/dx(secx)]-The derivative of tanx is:d/dx(tan u)=[sec(u)]2*d/dx(u)d/dx(tan x)=[sec(x)]2*d/dx(x)d/dx(tan x)=[sec(x)]2*(1)d/dx(tan x)=(sec(x))2=sec2(x)-The derivative of secx is:d/dx(sec u)=[sec(u)tan(u)]*d/dx(u)d/dx(sec x)=[sec(x)tan(x)]*d/dx(x)d/dx(sec x)=[sec(x)tan(x)]*(1)d/dx(sec x)=sec(x)tan(x)d/dx(secxtanx)=secx*[sec2(x)]+tanx*[sec(x)tan(x)]d/dx(secxtanx)=sec3(x)+sec(x)tan2(x)
sinx*secx ( secx= 1/cos ) sinx*(1/cosx) sinx/cosx=tanx tanx=tanx
secx = 1/cosxand 1/cotx = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1 + sinx/cosx, andsin/cos = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1 + tanx, therefore1/cosx = 1, therfore1 = cosx.So, therfore, it is not neccesarily true.But if you meansecx plus 1 divided by cotx equals (1 plus sinx) divided by cosx(this is probably what you mean) Let's start over!secx = 1/cosxand 1/cotx = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = (1+sinx)/cosx therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1/cosx + sinx/cosxsinx/cosx = tanx therfore1/cosx + tanx = 1/cosx + tanxDo you think this is correct? Subtract both sides by 1/cosx + tanx:0 = 0So, therefore, this is correct!(BTW, I'm in Grade 6! :P)
This is a trigonometric integration using trig identities. S tanX^3 secX dX S tanX^2 secX tanX dX S (secX^2 -1) secX tanX dX u = secX du = secX tanX S ( u^2 - 1) du 1/3secX^3 - secX + C
It is minus 1 I did this: sinx/cos x = tan x sinx x = cosx tanx you have (x - sinxcosx) / (tanx -x) (x- cos^2 x tan x)/(tanx -x) let x =0 -cos^2 x (tanx) /tanx = -cos^x -cos^2 (0) = -1
K-von Tanx God - 2014 was released on: USA: 1 January 2014 (DVD premiere)
NO, sinxtanx=sinxsinx/cosx since tanx is sinx/cosx this is sin^2xcosx now add cosx cosx(sin^2x+1) after factoring Does this equal tanx? No, since this would require tanx to equal cosx(sin^2x+1) and it does not.
integral of (tanx)^4 (tanx)^4 = (tanx)^2 (tanx)^2 =(sec^2 x - 1)(tan^2 x) =(sec^2 x)(tan^2 x) - tan^2 x = integral of sec^2 x tan^2 x dx - integral of tan^2 x dx First, integral of sec^2 x tan^2 x dx Let u = tanx because that would make du = sec^2 x dx so then we have integral of u^2 du which is (1/3)u^3 substituting back in tanx we get (1/3)tan^3 x Next, integral of tan^2 x tan^2 x = sec^2 x -1 integral of sec^2 x - 1 = integral of sec^2 x dx - integral 1 dx = tanx - x so putting it all together we have integral of tan^4 x dx = (1/3)tan^3 x - tanx + x + C
well, the second derivative is the derivative of the first derivative. so, the 2nd derivative of a function's indefinite integral is the derivative of the derivative of the function's indefinite integral. the derivative of a function's indefinite integral is the function, so the 2nd derivative of a function's indefinite integral is the derivative of the function.
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