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All real numbers, except 0, have a multiplicative inverse. For any real x, (x not = 0), there exists a real number y such that x*y = 1. This y is denoted by 1/x.
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What numbers are their own multiplicative inverse?
One
Does every non-zero number have a multiplicative inverse?
Every non zero number has a multiplicative inverse, which is 1 divided by that number. This stands for both real and complex numbers. This can be proved by letting x=some non zero number. x*(1/x)=x/x=1, therefore the multiplicative inverse of x is 1/x.
How do you find the multiplicative inverse of mixed numbers?
change it to an improper fraction and then do it
What is the product of any nonzero real number and its multiplicative inverse?
1
What is the multiplicative inverse of 4 i?
The multiplicative inverse of 4i is -(1/4)*i.
What are the elements in rational numbers having multiplicative inverse?
All rational numbers, with the exception of zero (0), have a multiplicative inverse. In fact, all real numbers (again, except for zero) have multiplicative inverses, though the inverses of irrational numbers are themselves irrational. Even imaginary numbers have multiplicative inverses (the multiplicative inverse of 5i is -0.2i - as you can see the inverse itself is also imaginary). Even complex numbers (the sum of an imaginary number and a real number) have multiplicative inverses (the inverse of [5i + 2] is [-5i/29 + 2/29] - similar to irrational and imaginary numbers, the inverse of a complex number is itself complex). The onlynumber, in any set of numbers, that does not have a multiplicative inverse is zero.
What number does not have a multiplicative inverse?
A multiplicative inverse for 2 numbers exists if the 2 numbers are coprime, i.e. their greatest common divisor (or gcd) is 1. However, if your question refers to just a singular number, virtually all real numbers (with the exception of zero) have a multiplicative inverse.
What is multiplicative inverse in rational numbers?
The inverse function of multiplication is division.
What numbers are their own multiplicative inverse?
One
Why doesn't every real number have a multiplicative inverse?
The only real (or complex) number which does not have a multiplicative inverse is 0. There is nothing you can multiply by 0 to get 1.
What number has no multiple inverse?
On the set of all real numbers ZERO has no multiplicative inverse. For other sets there may be other numbers too, so please define your set!
Does the set of rational numbers have a multiplicative inverse?
Yes, and for any non-zero rational x, the multiplicative inverse is 1/x.
What is the multiplicative of -1?
Assuming the question is about the multiplicative inverse, the answer is, -1. It is its own multiplicative inverse.
Is the product of a fraction and its multiplicative inverse 1?
Yes. That's basically the definition of a multiplicative inverse.Also, this doesn't only apply to fractions - it applies to any real numbers.
Is it true that any real number has a multiplicative inverse?
No, it is not true.
Does every non-zero number have a multiplicative inverse?
Every non zero number has a multiplicative inverse, which is 1 divided by that number. This stands for both real and complex numbers. This can be proved by letting x=some non zero number. x*(1/x)=x/x=1, therefore the multiplicative inverse of x is 1/x.
How do you find the multiplicative inverse of mixed numbers?
change it to an improper fraction and then do it
