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You can use either multiplication of division to convert pints to cups:

1 pt = 2 cups

Therefore to convert pints to cups multiply by 2

½ pint = 1 cup

Therefore to convert pints to cups divide by ½

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9y ago

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Related Questions

Would you multiply or divide to change fluid ounces to cups?

You may multiply by 0.25, or divide by 4. The result is the same- cups to quarts.


Would you divide or multiply to change pints to cups?

2 cups in a pint.


How do you convert cups into pints?

-- divide the number of cups by 2 -- the result is the number of US pints


What is equal to 38 cups in pt?

To convert cups to pints, you can use the conversion factor that 1 cup is equal to 0.5 pints. Therefore, to convert 38 cups to pints, you multiply 38 by 0.5, which equals 19 pints. Thus, 38 cups is equal to 19 pints.


How many pints is 42 cups?

1 pint = 2 cups, so 42 cups would be 42/2 pints, or 21 pints.


Do you multiply or divide to get from Pints to quarts?

You can convert in any direction that suits your requirement. All youneed to know is the fact that 1 pint and 2 cups are equal volumes.


Why is 28 cups equal to 14 pints?

There are 2 cups in a pint, so to convert cups to pints, you divide the number of cups by 2. Therefore, 28 cups divided by 2 equals 14 pints. This relationship holds true because of the standard measurement conversions in the United States.


Do you divide pints to cups?

A pint is two cups.


Rob needs 8 cups of vegetable broth for soup How much is this in pints?

To convert cups to pints, you can use the conversion factor that 1 pint equals 2 cups. Therefore, to find out how many pints are in 8 cups, you divide 8 by 2, which equals 4 pints. So, Rob needs 4 pints of vegetable broth for his soup.


Convert 10 cups to how many pints?

5 pints


How many pints equal 10 cups?

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How many cups are in 17 pints?

There are 34 cups in 17 pints. Since there are 2 cups in 1 pint, you can multiply 17 pints by 2 to get the equivalent number of cups.