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No, it does not.
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Is the multiplicative inverse of a rational number an integer?
No, it is not. 3/5 is rational and its multiplicative inverse is 5/3 which is not an integer.
How do you determine the multiplicative inverse of a number?
The multiplicative inverse of a number is its reciprocal, meaning the multiplicative inverse of the rational number a/b is b/a. In the specialized case for integers, the multiplicative inverse of n is 1/n. This is due to the fact that a/b * b/a = 1 and n * 1/n = 1, which is the definition of a multiplicative inverse. More succinctly, to find the multiplicative inverse you "flip" the fraction or integer around to its reciprocal. This is the number that when multiplied with the original number results in a product of 1.
Why doesn't every real number have a multiplicative inverse?
The only real (or complex) number which does not have a multiplicative inverse is 0. There is nothing you can multiply by 0 to get 1.
What is the sum of an integer and its opposite?
If by "opposite" you mean its additive inverse, the answer is 0. If by "opposite" you mean its multiplicative inverse, for the number x, it will be (x+1/x).
What is an multiplicative inverse of -.50?
The multiplicative inverse is 1/(-0.50) = -2
Is the multiplicative inverse of a rational number an integer?
No, it is not. 3/5 is rational and its multiplicative inverse is 5/3 which is not an integer.
How do you multiplicative an inverse when its a whole number?
The multiplicative inverse of any non-zero integer, N is 1/N.
What is the multiplicative inverse of a number?
The modular multiplicative inverse of an integer amodulo m is an integer x such thatThat is, it is the multiplicative inverse in the ring of integers modulo m. This is equivalent toThe multiplicative inverse of a modulo m exists iff a and m are coprime (i.e., if gcd(a, m) = 1). If the modular multiplicative inverse of amodulo m exists, the operation of division by amodulo m can be defined as multiplying by the inverse, which is in essence the same concept as division in the field of reals.
Is one the only number that has its own multiplicative integer?
No, it is one of two numbers that has its own multiplicative inverse which is an integer. The other number is -1.
How do you determine the multiplicative inverse of a number?
The multiplicative inverse of a number is its reciprocal, meaning the multiplicative inverse of the rational number a/b is b/a. In the specialized case for integers, the multiplicative inverse of n is 1/n. This is due to the fact that a/b * b/a = 1 and n * 1/n = 1, which is the definition of a multiplicative inverse. More succinctly, to find the multiplicative inverse you "flip" the fraction or integer around to its reciprocal. This is the number that when multiplied with the original number results in a product of 1.
What is the multiplicative of -1?
Assuming the question is about the multiplicative inverse, the answer is, -1. It is its own multiplicative inverse.
Does every nonzero fraction has a multiplicative inverse?
Yes
Why doesn't every real number have a multiplicative inverse?
The only real (or complex) number which does not have a multiplicative inverse is 0. There is nothing you can multiply by 0 to get 1.
What is the multiplication inverse of 8?
The multiplicative inverse is when you multiply a certain number, and the product is itself, the number. So, the multiplicative inverse of 8 is of course, 1. For every number, the multiplicative number is 1, because a certain number times 1 is equal to the certain number. It's simple!!
What is the sum of an integer and its opposite?
If by "opposite" you mean its additive inverse, the answer is 0. If by "opposite" you mean its multiplicative inverse, for the number x, it will be (x+1/x).
What is the multiplicative inverse of 4 i?
The multiplicative inverse of 4i is -(1/4)*i.
What is the multiplicative inverse of −100?
the multiplicative inverse of -100 is 1/-100
