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It isn't, but here is a corrected equation that is: tan1 x tan 20 x tan 45 x tan 70 x tan 89 = 1 It will then work because tan(45 + x) = 1/tan(45 - x). Hence tan1 cancels when multiplied with tan89, and tan20 cancels with tan70. tan 45 equals 1, and so the whole expression cancels to 1. I think this effect was what the equation was intended to demonstrate.
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∙ 16y ago
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Is 1 6 equal to 1 3?
2 sixths are equal to 1 third
When the numerator of a fraction is equal to its denominator the fraction is equal to?
It is equal to 1.
Why does 110 equal 1?
110 does NOT equal 1
Does 8 to the power of 8 equal 1?
8 to the power of 8 = 8x8x8x8x8x8x8x8 and does not equal 1 but 1 to the power of 8 does equal 1
When does 29 minus 1 equal 30?
29 - 1 will always equal 28. 29 - -1 will equal 30.
What is 2e-1 equal?
2e-1 equal = 1
Is 1 6 equal to 1 3?
2 sixths are equal to 1 third
When the numerator of a fraction is equal to its denominator the fraction is equal to?
It is equal to 1.
In Greece what is 1 plus 1 equal?
1 plus 1 equal = 2
Why does 110 equal 1?
110 does NOT equal 1
1 1 equal?
Yes, 1 and 1 are equal.
Sum 1 to 500 inclusive?
That is equal to 500(1 + 500) / 2.That is equal to 500(1 + 500) / 2.That is equal to 500(1 + 500) / 2.That is equal to 500(1 + 500) / 2.
What is 1 cup equal?
1 cup is equal to 1/2 pint.
What is true when the numerator and denominator of the fractions equal?
That it is equal to 1/1 which is 1
1 millimeter is equal to 1 what?
1 millimeter is equal to 10th of a centimeter
Does 8 to the power of 8 equal 1?
8 to the power of 8 = 8x8x8x8x8x8x8x8 and does not equal 1 but 1 to the power of 8 does equal 1
Is -1 is lest than or equal to -1?
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