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It probably appears an infinite number of times, but this hasn't been proven mathematically.

Q: How many times does the number 9 appear in pi?

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116

If n is any integer, then (n/pi) times pi is a whole number.

No because 15 times pi is an irrational number

Pi is the number you have to use to solve many circle equations. If you want to find the area of a circle, use radius squared times pi. For the circumference, use diameter times pi.

It is still equal to pi (3.1416) because when you multiply anything by 1 no matter how many times you multiply it, you end up with that other number.

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Pi can be calculated to millions of decimal places and it has not come out even yet, so there is no apparent limit to the number of 1's that will appear in the calculation.

116

If n is any integer, then (n/pi) times pi is a whole number.

Pi is the number you have to use to solve many circle equations. If you want to find the area of a circle, use radius squared times pi. For the circumference, use diameter times pi.

No because 15 times pi is an irrational number

It is still equal to pi (3.1416) because when you multiply anything by 1 no matter how many times you multiply it, you end up with that other number.

Not necessarily. i times pi is not a whole number, and yet e to the power of i times pi is equal to -1.

The diameter of a circle can be divided into the circumference of a circle pi times. The number pi is about 3.14 in decimal form. Because pi is an irrational number, it cannot be written as a fraction of integers or as a terminal or repeating decimal. The circumference of a circle is said to be pi times the diameter, so by dividing the diameter into the circumference, we would get pi as a quotient.

2 times pi is not an integer. Since Pi is an irrational number, 2 pi is also an irrational number.

Any multiple of or addition to or subtraction from PI is an irrational number. PI divided by PI is 1, a rational number. So is PI times 0 = 0

Well, (pi) x (1/pi) = 1 .

No, it is not.