42*4 = 168 inches.
Exactly 42 times.
169 divided by 42 is 4 with remainder 1.
42 ÷ 8 = 5 with remainder 2 OR 5.25 times.
No, not evenly. It goes into 42, 4 times, with a remainder of 6 left over. So nine goes into 42, 4-2/3 times.
4 times
42*4 = 168 inches.
4 x 9 = 36 So 9 goes into 42 = 4 times with a remainder of 6
No it cannot. 42/4= 10 with a remainder of 2
231 divided by 42 is 5.5
Six (7x6=42)
Exactly 42 times.
20 does not wholly go into 42. However, excluding remainders, it goes into 42 two times.
No, 4 does not gointo 42. If you do the math, conting by 4's: 4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, 28, 32, 36, 40, 44. 42 is not found in there.
Yes. 6 goes into 42 exactly 7 times.
1000 ÷ 42 = 23 with remainder 34 or 23.81
Exactly 42 times