answersLogoWhite

0


Best Answer

No. E = mc2 is not the same as E = (mc)2 which is what the question suggests.

Also, if you know E, why do you need to square anything to "get" E?

User Avatar

Wiki User

14y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: If Albert Einstein came up with the theory that E equals MC2 then if we know what E and M equal too can't we just square MC to get E?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp