Is 1 over 2 equivalent to 3 over 6?

Answer 1

yes

In detail:

Yes, because 1/2 and 3/6 are both .5 (or .50). If you divide 2 into 1 you will get .5 and if you divide 6 into 3 you will get .5 (which is the same as .50).

To determine if 2 fractions are equivalent, multiply using the "cross product rule". For example, with 1/2 and 3/6:

1 x 3

2 6 Multiply 1 x 6 and 2 x 3. Since they both = 6, then you know they are equal.

Another example: 2/5 and 5/10

2 x 5

5 10 Since 2 x 10 is 20 and 5 x 5 is 25, they are notequivalent.