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In general, for a continuous function (one that doesn't make sudden jump - the type of functions you normally deal with), the limit of a function (as x tends to some value) is the same as the function of the limit (as x tends to the same value).e to the power x is continuous.

However, you really can't know much about "limit of f(x) as x tends to infinity"; the situation may vary quite a lot, depending on the function. For example, such a limit might not exist in the general case. Two simple examples where this limit does not exist are x squared, and sine of x.

If the limit exists, I would expect the two expressions, in the question, to be equal.

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7y ago
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7y ago

Yes, provided that the limits exist.

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Q: Is it generally true that limit of e to the power of fx as x tends to infinity is equal to e to the power of limit of fx as x tends to infinity?
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