no.
Not always.
No. Their product is always greater than 0.
Assuming the numbers are positive, the answer will be a mixed number that is greater than the integer parts of the two numbers and smaller than the product of one more than each of the two integer parts. The last part is: ax < ab/c * xy/z < (a+1)*(x+1)
The assertion in the question is simply not true.
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no
Not always.
No. Their product is always greater than 0.
If the GCF of a given pair of numbers is 1, the LCM will be equal to their product. If the GCF is greater than 1, the LCM will be less than their product. Or, stated another way, if the two numbers have no common prime factors, their LCM will be their product.
Not always, but most of the time.
No. If one of the numbers is 0 it is less; if one of the numbers is 1 it is the same as one of them; otherwise the product is greater than either
Assuming the numbers are positive, the answer will be a mixed number that is greater than the integer parts of the two numbers and smaller than the product of one more than each of the two integer parts. The last part is: ax < ab/c * xy/z < (a+1)*(x+1)
The product will be greater than 1, when each of the two factors are greater than 1.
The product of two digit numbers is always greater than either.
Whenever you multiply two negative real numbers.
The assertion in the question is simply not true.
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