37 ÷ 1 = 37
No 1 is the number that can be divided with 37.
37 cannot be divided with other number.
Take the last digit of a number and subtract eleven times from the rest of that number. If the result is 0 or divisible by 37, then so was the original number.
There is no easy rule for divisibility by 34.
The divisibility rules of 4 and 9 are combined to make the divisibility rule of 36.
By tautology. If it did not work, it would not be a divisibility rule!
why does the divisibility rule work for 4
the divisibility rule for 2 is: The number is even;the last digit ends with a 2,4,6,8,10, etc.The divisibility rule fir 3 is: The sum of the number is divisible by 3The divisibility rule for 4 is: The last two digits are divisible by 4The divisibility rule for 5 is: The number ends with a 5 or 0The divisibility rule for 6 is: The sum CAN be divisible by 2 and or 3The divisibility rule for 9 is: The sum of the number is divisible by 9The divisibility rule for 10 is : The number ends with a 0
there is a divisibility for 24 the rule is you can divide 24 as 6 and 4 i think
What is the divisblity rule by 8
There is no rule for 7 :P
The divisibility rule for 2 works because the base of our number system, 10, is divisible by 2.
Able to Be Divided
Judging by some of the questions asked on this site, the first rule is that divisibility is a concept that applies only to whole numbers.
2 squared 1 = 4 so the divisibility rule is that it is divisible by 1, 2 and 4.
The rule for 1 and the rule for 3.
it is divisible by5
the number is even.
It has to end 00.
By using the divisibility rule for 3, we find that 117 is divisible by 3. That makes it composite.
There is no divisibility rule for 13 because it is a prime number. If you are thinking: why is there a divsibility rule for 2 and 3 then. Well, i don't know so go look it up on google.
Division by zero is undefined.
It is 3 6 9
Just carry out the division.