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If the numerator and denominator are the same then the fraction is 1. If not, it is not.

This follows from the property of 1, the multiplicative identity.

For all real (or complex) numbers, x, other than 0, there is a unique number, usually denoted by x-1 or 1/x such that x*x-1 or x*1/x = 1. The consequence is that any number divided by itself is 1. Not only that, but if it is divided by any other number, the uniqueness of the inverse implies that the answer cannot be 1.

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Q: What is the rule of deciding if a fraction is equivalent to 1 whole Why?
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