Anynumber can be the next number - or, by extension, the tenth number in the sequence. It is easy to find a rule based on a polynomial of order 4 such that the first four numbers are as listed in the question and the next is any number of your choice. There are also non-polynomial solutions. Short of reading the mind of the person who posed the question, there is no way of determining which of the infinitely many solutions is the "correct" one.
The simplest solution, based on a polynomial of order 3 is
t(n) = (-n^3 + 7*n^2 - 44*n + 52)/2 for n = 1 , 2, 3, ...
In that case, t(10) = -344.
38 is 23% of 165.2
1+1=2, 2+2=4, 4+4=8, 8+8=16 and so the next number in the sequence is 38
Any number of the form 22*n/(38*n) is an equivalent fraction. One such is 22/38.
8.36
3.8
20
38 is 23% of 165.2
1+1=2, 2+2=4, 4+4=8, 8+8=16 and so the next number in the sequence is 38
Any number of the form 22*n/(38*n) is an equivalent fraction. One such is 22/38.
22 is the third number in the series.
8.36
(x+6)+x=38 2x+6=38 2x=38-6 x=32/2 x=16 Therefore the one number is 16, and the other number is (16+6) which is 22. 16+22=38
38/10=3.8
3.8
t(n) = 6 + 8n
A sequence of 3 positive integers.
It is 38, the middle number when they are arranged in order.