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If n is any integer, then (n/pi) times pi is a whole number.

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0Not necessarily. i times pi is not a whole number, and yet e to the power of i times pi is equal to -1.

If you mean pi then: 50 times pi is about 157 to the nearest whole number

No because the circumference of a circle is pi times diameter and pi is an irrational number

Pi is not divisible by any whole number to reach a solution of another whole number. Pi can be divided by pi to equal 1; however, pi itself is not a whole number.

A decimal, in this context, is a useless description: a decimal can be an integer, a rational number or an irrational number. Furthermore, a whole number times a decimal fraction can be a whole number, a rational number or an irrational number.For example:4 * 3.5 = 14 is a whole number times a decimal fraction = whole number.4 * 3.3 = 13.2 is a whole number times a decimal fraction = rational fraction.4 * 3.14159... [ie pi in decimal form] = 4 * pi, which is an irrational number.

The number pi, approximated by 3.1416 is closest to the whole number 3.

-- Multiply (pi) by (diameter of circle)OR-- Multiply (pi) by (2 times radius of circle)-- Then round the product to the nearest whole number.

Pi rounded to the nearest whole number is 3.

Pi to the nearest whole number is 3.

No, not the whole number because it goes on forever. The shortened version of pi is 3.14.

No, it is an irrational number.

Nope - Pi is an infinite number. The fractional equivalent is 22/7 which can never be a whole number.

If you mean the whole number, it is 3

3. 0.14 is part of whole number.

No because 15 times pi is an irrational number

The number 3.

Pi is not prime nor composite, instead, it is what is called irrational (It can't be written as a fraction or whole number.) Because only whole numbers can be prime, pi is not prime.

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