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Because there is always going to be friction, the efficiency of any machine will always be less then 100 percent.

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โˆ™ 2010-04-01 16:19:40
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A polynomial of degree zero is a constant term

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Q: Why a normal machine could not have the mechanical efficiency of 100?
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Related questions

What is the difference between actual machanical advantage and ideal machanical advantage?

Ideal mechanical advantage is what could be obtained without the effects of gravity and friction lowering the efficiency of the machine. The actual mechanical advantage is what can actually be obtained by the machine.


What is the mechanical advantage of an ideal machine?

Ideal just means the machine has no losses. The mechanical advantage could be anything, depending on its configuration.


What use did the mechanical reaper do?

It could reap (harvest) cotton with the efficiency of five men.


What does reducing the friction in a machine do to the machine's ideal mechanical advantage?

Ideal mechanical advantage is calculated assuming there is no friction, no deflection, and no wear.Therefore, reducing the friction in a machine will not affect the machine's ideal mechanical advantage. Reducing friction in a machine could improve the actual mechanical advantageof the machine. Measurement of the actual mechanical advantage of a machine requires actual operation of the machine, data, and calculations.


What is an adding machine?

An adding machine is a mechanical or electromechanical calculator which could perform addition and subtraction.


Can any pulley have a efficiency over 100?

No. A perfectly frictionless machine could have an efficiency of 100%. Anything less perfect must have can efficiency less than 100%.


What is the opposite of mechanical?

The opposite of mechanical (by machine) could be biological or natural.The opposite of mechanical (perfunctory, without thought) could be conscious, considered, or thoughtful.Where mechanical has the connotation automatic, the opposite would be manual.


Why is a machines actual mechanical advantage always less than its ideal mechanical advantage?

In real machines, there is always friction that reduces the efficiency of the machine.This reduces the mechanical advantage because some of the input force has to be used to overcome the force of friction in the machine.To reduce friction in the machine, you could add a lubricant such as oil.


Is it true a simple machine is one that always gives a mechanical advantage of 2?

No. A simple machine such as a lever could quite easily give a mechanical advantage of 10, 100 or more, or could even be less than 1.


How do you calculate the efficiency of an electrical mechanical system?

You could have an electric motor driving a reduction gearbox, for example. The efficiencies of both might be considered individually, or as a whole. As a whole is easier. (Work out/ work in) x 100 = efficiency%. Or, (power out/ power in) x 100 = efficiency%. Or, (force out/ force in) x100 = efficiency%. It depends on what you have to work with, what you use. If you did need to calculate electrical and mechanical efficiencies separately because of different units, the final overall efficiency will be (total of the percentages) / (number of percentages).


Does a bigger wheel increases the efficiency of the machine in the wheel and axle?

Generally automobiles are designed with optimum size wheels. Changing the diameter is unlikely to increase efficiency, and could well have the opposite effect.


Who invented The first Mechanical Counting Device?

The first mechanical counting device was invented by Blaise Pascal in 1642. It was primarily used as an adding machine. It could add and subtract two numbers.

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