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Why does 1half of 2 equals one whole?

Wiki User

∙ 2014-03-22 13:22:39

Best Answer

Because: 1/2 times 2/1 = 2/2 => 1

Wiki User

∙ 2014-03-22 13:22:39

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A polynomial of degree zero is a constant term

The grouping method of factoring can still be used when only some of the terms share a common factor A True B False

The sum or difference of p and q is the of the x-term in the trinomial

A number a power of a variable or a product of the two is a monomial while a polynomial is the of monomials

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Related questions

What is 1half equals to?

50% of the whole which can be any value. For example 1/2 of 100 is 50. 1/2 of 8 is 4, etc. etc.

Explain why 1 2 of 2 equals one whole?

1/2 of 2 equals one whole because when you split 2 in half, you get 1.

What is 1half times 2 and one half?

If you convert it into decimals, .5x2.5 the resulting answer is 1.25. One and one-fourth.

Why does 1 half of 2 equals one whole?

You're an idiot

What is -1 divided by 1half?

-2

What is 13 x 1half?

6 1/2

Counterexample of division of whole?

1 to the power of one divided equals 2 which is commutative

What is 150 percent of 1half?

150% or one and a half time 1/2 = 1 1/2 x 1/2 = 3/4

What fractions do 1half equal to?

One half = 1/2 = 2/4 = 3/6 = 4/8 = 5/10 and so on ...

How many quarts is one half?

2 quarters equals half. There are 4 quarters to a whole.

How many pints equal 2 1half of gallons?

That is 20 pints.

What is 7and 1half minus 2 and 1fourth?

5 1/4

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