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Any number that is divisible by 10 is an even number and hence divisible by 2 also. It can also be stated that because 10 is divisible by 2, all numbers divisble by 10 are also divisible by 2.

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080%. Out of every ten numbers, one is divisible by 10, and that same one plus one moreare both divisible by 5. The remaining eight are divisible by neither 5 nor 10.

Numbers divisible by 6 will have at least one 2 and one 3 as prime factors because 2 x 3 = 6. The same is true for 2, 4 and 8. Numbers divisible by 4 are also divisible by 2. Numbers divisible by 8 are also divisible by 4 and 2.

Some are, some are not. Binary is just a way of writing a number. It will still be divisible be the same numbers it was divisible by in base 10.

1296

Yes, half of the numbers divisible by 2 are not divisible by 4. For example, 2 is divisible by 2 but not by 4. The same is true for 6, 10, 14, 18, 22, 26, etc.

No, 6 is divisable by 3 but not divisable by 9, same goes for 12, 15 and 24 ... so on.

No. An odd number has no even factor. So two odd numbers can't have the same even factor.Make sense ?

Well, if you really mean divisible by 4 then the answer is 100% that is probability 1.00. On the other hand, if you mean evenly divisible by 4, then in the numbers 1-12 there are 3 numbers evenly divisible by 4 (4, 8, 12) since there are 12 numbers then the probaqbility of a number divisible by 4 is 3/12 = 0.25

16 over 120, both nubers divisible by 2 so this is the same as 8 over 60, both numbers are divisible by 2 so this is the same as 4 over 30, both numbers are divisible by 2 so this is the same as 2 over 15. 2 is only divisible by 1 and 2 15 is only divisible by 1, 3, 5 and 15, so we can go no further 2 over 15 is the simplest form.

I could answer that question, but it doesn't make sense. Your question doesn't make sense.

You have to make sure the top number of the fraction is not more than the bottom and that the two numbers can't be divisible by the same number. 14/6 -> 2 2/6 -> 2 1/3

This question does not make sense.

If the numbers are even, they are divisible by 2. So, the set of numbers must be divisible by both 2 and 3, which is the same as being divisible by 6. The set is {6, 12, 18, 24, 30, 36, 42, 48, 54, 60, 66, 72, 78, 84, 90, 96, 102, 108, ...}

numbers that are divisible of 5 and 6 is basically adding the same number repeating itself. for example, 5 times 4 is the same as 5+5+5+5. five added four times. 5 is divisible of 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 and so on. 6 is divisible to 6 12 18 24 30 36 42 48 54 and so on.

Your question does not make sense.

There is no such thing as a negative set of integers. There can be a set of negative integers, but that is not the same thing. And even that does not make sense.There is no such thing as a negative set of integers. There can be a set of negative integers, but that is not the same thing. And even that does not make sense.There is no such thing as a negative set of integers. There can be a set of negative integers, but that is not the same thing. And even that does not make sense.There is no such thing as a negative set of integers. There can be a set of negative integers, but that is not the same thing. And even that does not make sense.

That does not make sense. What don't they have to do? Please ask the same question with more sense again.

87 is already divisible by 3, so you could add a 0, 3, 6 or 9 anywhere in there and get the same result.

985 / 2 = 492 985 / 3 = 328 985 / 5 = 197 in all cases just round down to get your answer. if you mean how many numbers are divisible by all 3 numbers at the same time: 2x3x5 = 30 985 / 30 = 32

This question does not make sense.

You make no sense.

they are not the same because one did not make any sense

3.5

5 x 1.25

This question does not make sense since a combination is independent of the order of its elements. That is, the combinations 1245 and 5142 are the same. Consequently, there can be no "last " numbers in a combination.

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