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If you're looking for common factors, they must be factors of both numbers.
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∙ 12y ago
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Why can the gcf of 16 and 42 be less than 16?
Because 16 is a factor of 16, but it's not a factor of 42. So a number that's a factor of both 16 and 42 must be less than 16. (It can't be more than 16, because no factor of 16 can be bigger than 16.)
Can you explain why the greatest common factor of 16 and 42 is less than 16?
It can be and is. Since 16 is not a factor of 42, the GCF will have to be a factor of 16 that is less than 16.
Can the gcf of 16 and 42 be than less 16 explain?
It must be less than or equal to the smallest of the set of numbers whose GCF you are trying to obtain. So it must be less than or equal to 16. Furthermore, it is not 16 because 16 is not a factor of 42. Therefore, it must be less than 16.
Can the greatest common factor of 16 and 42 be less than 16?
Yes. The greatest common factor of 16 and 42 must be a factor of 16. The only rule is that the GCF has to be equal to or less than the lower number. Since 16 is not the GCF of 16 and 42, the GCF has to be lower than 16.
What 16 and 42 greatest common factor?
The greatest common factor of 16 and 42 is 2.
Can the greatest common factor of 16 and 42 be less then 16?
Yes, the greatest common factor of 16 and 42 can be and is less than 16. The GCF of 16 and 42 is 2..
Is 16 a factor of 42?
No.
Why can 16 and 42 be less than 16?
because 16 is not a factor of 42 and the GCF is 2.
Can the GCF of 16 and 42 be less than 16 Explain?
yes... 16 is not a factor of 42 GCF is 2
Can the greatest common factor of 16 and 42 be under 16?
It can be and is.
Can the gcf of 16 and 42 be less 16 explain why?
Since 16 is not a factor of 42, the GCF in this case has to be less than 16.
Can the greatest common factor of 16 and 42 to be less than 16?
It can be and it is.
