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Carlo Kiehn

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3y ago
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12y ago

Because the percentage of change always refers to the starting value.

The percentage change to get from 'a' to 'b' is a percentage of 'a'.

The percentage change to get from 'b' to 'a' is a percentage of 'b'.

The amounts of change are the same, but the starting values are different,

so the percentage of the starting value is different in the two cases.

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Q: Why is the percent change from a to b not equal to the percent change of the inverse -- 1 divided by a to 1 divided by b?
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