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In general the mixed number A n/c is equal to what improper fraction

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That looks like a merge gone wrong. All is not lost though!

Cantor showed that the order of both sets is of the same order of infinity (both Aleph null). To show this, he used the mapping n: -> 2n+1 for all integer n, which is a 1-to-1 mapping from the integers to the odd numbers.

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Q: Why is the set of odd numbers equivalent to the set of whole numbers?
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Related questions

What is the cardinality of an odd whole number?

The set of odd whole numbers is countably infinite. It's cardinality is aleph null.

Is there an even numbers before every odd number in the set of whole numbers?


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