Yes, as long as the two nonzero numbers are themselves rational. (Since a rational number is any number that can be expressed as the quotient of two rational numbers, or any number that can be written as a fraction using only rational numbers.) If one of the nonzero numbers is not rational, the quotient will most likely be irrational.
Not if the second rational number is 0: in that case the quotient is not defined. Otherwise the answer is yes.
The quotient of two nonzero integers is the definition of a rational number. There are nonzero numbers other than integers (imaginary, rational non-integers) that the quotient of would not be a rational number. If the two nonzero numbers are rational themselves, then the quotient will be rational. (For example, 4 divided by 2 is 2: all of those numbers are rational).
Yes, a rational number is a real number. A rational number is a number that can be written as the quotient of two integers, a/b, where b does not equal 0. Integers are real numbers. The quotient of two real numbers is always a real number. The terms "rational" and "irrational" apply to the real numbers. There is no corresponding concept for any other types of numbers.
No. It's always irrational.
If a number can be expressed as the quotient of two numbers (a Ã· b) and b is not zero, then it is a rational number.
Every number can be written as a quotient.Every rational number can be written as a quotient of whole numbers.
A real number is any number so yes it is always a real number * * * * * Except if the second number is 0, in which case the quotient is not defined.
It is an incomplete definition of a rational number.
Yes, always. That is the definition of a rational number.
No. It is not defined if the rational number happens to be 0.