answersLogoWhite

0

GFx is always equal to FGx?

Updated: 4/28/2022
User Avatar

Wiki User

13y ago

Best Answer

No. In rare cases, it may be; usually it will not be.Here is one simple example. Function f() adds 10 to the input, function g() multiplies the input by 2. Let the starting number be 10.

If you first apply function f(), and then function g(), you get (10 + 10) * 2 = 40.

If you first apply function g(), and then function f(), you get 10 * 2 + 10 = 30.

User Avatar

Wiki User

6y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar
More answers
User Avatar

Wiki User

6y ago

No, it is not.

This answer is:
User Avatar

User Avatar

Wiki User

13y ago

false

This answer is:
User Avatar

User Avatar

htx emeily

Lvl 2
1y ago

answer is false

This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: GFx is always equal to FGx?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp