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In a random sample of 200 persons of a town,120 are found to be tea drinkers. In a

sample of 500 persons from another town 240 are found to be tea drinkers. Is the

proportion of tea drinkers in the two towns equal. Use 1%LOS

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Sanket Sharma

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2w ago
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15y ago

no, if the seccond one was out of 400 people then yes... but as it is out of 500 it is not... 120/200 is simplified into 3/5... and 240/500 is simplified into 12/25 (i don't think it can be simplified furthur

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Q: In a random sample of 200 persons of a town 120 are found to be tea drinkers In a random sample of 500 persons of another town 240 are found to be tea drinkers.Is the proportion of tea drinkers same?
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1. In a random sample of 200 persons of a town, 120 are found to be tea drinkers. In a random sample of 500 persons of another town, 240 are found to be tea drinkers. Is the proportion of tea drinkers in the two towns equal? Use 0.01 level of significance.


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In a random sample of 200 persons of a town 120 are found to be tea drinkers In a random sample of 500 persons of another town 240 are found to be tea drinkers Is the proportion of tea drinkers in?

Note that if the first one is multiplied by 2, you get 200*2=400 and 120*2=240. The 240 is the same as in the second test, but the population size is smaller, so the second is less. To test the significance of this difference, you would take 500-400 and divide by some standard deviation. One way to approximate this standard deviation is to say that it is from a binomial distribution with p = the average of 120/200 and 240/500. The standard deviation is sqrt[(average number of people)p(1-p)]. Use this and calculate how many standard deviations there are between the two. Look up this value on the normal distribution table to determine what will be the probability of being differernt.


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