No. Each pint is 16 fluid ounces. Two of them make 32 fluid ounces (one quart).
Well, sweetheart, 9 pints is more than 144 fluid ounces. Each pint is 16 fluid ounces, so 9 pints would be 144 fluid ounces. So, in this case, they're actually the same amount. But hey, nice try trying to trick me!
5 pints is more, as 78 fl oz. is about 4.875 pints.
Yes, that is correct
Yes 80 oz is the same as 5 pints
There are 16 ounces in a pint. Doing the math tells you that the two are the same.
-- If they're ounces of weight, they don't convert to pints of volume.-- Divide the number of fluid ounces by 16 to get the same volume in pints.
same thing 1 pint = 16 ounces 1 ounce = 0.06 pint
how many tablespoons in three pints the answer is 4 fluid ounces so that means that if table spoons and teaspoons are the same then they are equal to 4 pints
32 quarts = -- 8 gallons -- 64 pints -- 128 cups -- 1,024 fluid ounces
48 ounces is equal to 3 pints. There are 2 cups in one pint and 8 ounces in 1 cup. This means you have to multiply 8 and 2. You will get 16 ounces. Then multiply 16 ans 3. This equals to 48 which makes it equal to 3 pints.
1/2 cup equals 0.25 pint. In US measure, 1 pint = 2 cups And 1 cup = 0.5 pint. There are 16 US fluid ounces, 2 cups in 1 US pint (473.2 ml). Although there are 20 Imperial fluid ounces in 1 Imperial pint (568.3 ml), the Imperial system does not have cups, so it is best to use half pints.
You would divide to change fluid ounces to cups. For example, to convert 8 fluid ounces to cups, you would divide by 8 (1 cup = 8 fluid ounces), which would give you 1 cup.