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Yes because 2 is a common factor of both numbers but it is the gcf that will divide into both numbers with no remainder.
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∙ 12y ago
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Can the GCF of 16 and 42 be less than 16 Explain?
yes... 16 is not a factor of 42 GCF is 2
Can the gcf of 16 and 42 be less 16 explain why?
Since 16 is not a factor of 42, the GCF in this case has to be less than 16.
Can you explain why the greatest common factor of 16 and 42 is less than 16?
It can be and is. Since 16 is not a factor of 42, the GCF will have to be a factor of 16 that is less than 16.
What is the gcf of 28 16 and 42?
The GCF is 2.
What is the GCF of 21and 42 and the GCF of 16 and 25?
GCF of 21 and 42: 21GCF of 16 and 25: 1
Can the gcf of 16 and 42 be than less 16 explain?
It must be less than or equal to the smallest of the set of numbers whose GCF you are trying to obtain. So it must be less than or equal to 16. Furthermore, it is not 16 because 16 is not a factor of 42. Therefore, it must be less than 16.
What is the greatest common factor of 16 30 and 42?
The GCF is 2.
What is the gcf 16 and 42?
The GCF is 2.
Can the gcf of 16 and 42 be less that 16?
It can be and is.
Why can 16 and 42 be less than 16?
because 16 is not a factor of 42 and the GCF is 2.
Can the gcf be smaller than 16 in 16 and 42?
It can be and is.
Can the GCF of 16 and 42 be more than 16?
No.
