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Do all numbers have a multipicative inverse?

Updated: 9/18/2023
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Apple281

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10y ago

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Everything but zero.

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Q: Do all numbers have a multipicative inverse?
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Related questions

What is the multipicative inverse of 5?

0.2


What is the multipicative inverse of 3?

1/3 or 0.333...


What is the multipicative inverse of 0?

0 does not have a multiplicative inverse. Further ,such is an inherent property of any field .


What is the multipicative invers of 1 1-4?

"inverse" is spelled wrong and its 1. i think.


Why the multipicative inverse of zero does not exist?

To find the multiplicative inverse, you would have to solve the equation 0 times x = 1. Since any number times 0 is zero, this equation has no solution.


Which property is not true for all numbers on the 12hour clock?

this is no Inverse property for multiplication


What is multipicative identity?

When Two Numbers Are combined in an expression and added or multiplied together. Feel free to leave a comment if this helped you.


What are the elements in rational numbers having multiplicative inverse?

All rational numbers, with the exception of zero (0), have a multiplicative inverse. In fact, all real numbers (again, except for zero) have multiplicative inverses, though the inverses of irrational numbers are themselves irrational. Even imaginary numbers have multiplicative inverses (the multiplicative inverse of 5i is -0.2i - as you can see the inverse itself is also imaginary). Even complex numbers (the sum of an imaginary number and a real number) have multiplicative inverses (the inverse of [5i + 2] is [-5i/29 + 2/29] - similar to irrational and imaginary numbers, the inverse of a complex number is itself complex). The onlynumber, in any set of numbers, that does not have a multiplicative inverse is zero.


What number has no multiple inverse?

On the set of all real numbers ZERO has no multiplicative inverse. For other sets there may be other numbers too, so please define your set!


What number does not have a multiplicative inverse?

A multiplicative inverse for 2 numbers exists if the 2 numbers are coprime, i.e. their greatest common divisor (or gcd) is 1. However, if your question refers to just a singular number, virtually all real numbers (with the exception of zero) have a multiplicative inverse.


What is the product of a number and its inverse is 1?

That is the identity property of multiplication for all rational numbers, or all real numbers or all complex numbers except (in each case) for 0.


What is multiplicative inverse in rational numbers?

The inverse function of multiplication is division.