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X*x = y*y so 1 = 2
I know this is a joke question, but I shall prove it algebraically anyway.
a = 1, b = 1
ab-bb = a2-b2
b(a-b) = (a-b)(a+b)
b = (a+b)
Resubstitute back we get -
1 = 1+1
1 = 2
So algebraically 1 does equal 2. However any decent mathematician can tell you this proof divides by 0 therefore is invalid. So in the real world one does not equal 2.
no if 1 plus 1 equals 2 then 2 plus 2 equals 4.
2 times 1 equals 2.
== == 1 circle = 2 stars
You can't it equals 2. You can't it equals 2.
1
the expression is: 1^2=1 2^2+(2-1)^2=5 3^2+(3-1)^2+(3-2)^2=14
1 + 1 = 2 1 = 2 - 1 1 + 1 - 2 = 0 0 = 2 - 1 - 1
Add 2.
No, it equals -2
No it equals 2
Unfortunately, 2 over 2 minus 1 equals 5 over 6 is just a wrong answer! If it is 2 over 2, minus 1, the answer is that it equals zero. If it is 2, over 2 minus 1, the answer is that it equals 2.
1-2 equals -1. 2-3 equals -1. -1 plus -1 equals -2. as in all mixed sign problems, the answer to each part of the problem takes on the sign of the larger number.