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No.

It represents a function of x in terms of y but, in strict mathematical terms, not a function of y in terms of x.

This is because the mapping from the domain (x values) to the range (y values) is 1-to-many. For each value of x, there can be 2 values of y. For example, x = 0 gives y2 = 1 so that y = ±1.

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13y ago
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Q: Does the equatiion y squared plus x equals 1 represents a function y in terms of x?
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