Any number that you choose can be the next number. It is easy to find a rule based on a polynomial of order 9 such that the first nine numbers are as listed in the question followed by the chosen next number. There are also non-polynomial solutions. Short of reading the mind of the person who posed the question, there is no way of determining which of the infinitely many solutions is the "correct" one.
One suggested answer is 65.
The pattern in the sequence is that each number is divided by 10 to get the next number. Therefore, the next number in the sequence would be obtained by dividing 4 by 10, which equals 0.4.
The pattern is to divide by 5, so the next number would be 40
There is no possible way to determine this. To get from 0 to 4 is +4. Multiplied by 3 to get 12. Multiplied by 2 to get 24. From 24 to 40 is 1.66666666667. Which is a repeating number, no pattern is followed, therefore making it illogical
50-10=40. 40+60=100. 100-10=90. 90+60=150. I think we see the pattern. Next number is 150-10 or 140.
Double it every time and so the next number will be 80
41
To get the next term, triple the present term and add 1 . The next term after 40 is 121 .
Oh, what a lovely little pattern we have here! It looks like we're adding 2, then adding 1, then multiplying by 3. So, if we continue the pattern, the next number would be 120. Just remember, there are no mistakes in patterns, only happy little accidents!
The pattern is +2 /2 +3 /3 +4 /4, and the next term would be +5, or 8.
The next number is 20.
The next number should be 80.
The progression is any number in the pattern x 3 + 11 x 3 + 1 = 44 x 3 + 1 = 1313 X 3 + 1 = 4040 X 3 + 1 = 121121 x 3 + 1 = 364.......which is the next number in the pattern. See? Easy as pi; which is:3.14159265...