answersLogoWhite

0

It's not.

User Avatar

Wiki User

13y ago

What else can I help you with?

Related Questions

Is 9 over 28 greater than 1 over 2?

No because 1/2 is greater than 9/28


Is 1 1 over 2 greater than 28 over 10?

Convert the mixed number to an improper fraction, make the two fractions equivalent fractions with the same denominator, and compare the numerators: 1 1/2 = (1×2+1)/2 = 3/2 3/2 = (3×5)/(2×5) = 15/10 15 < 28 → 15/10 < 28/10 → 1½ < 28/10 → No; 1½ is not greater than 28/10


What is 15 over 28 as a mixed fraction?

To convert the improper fraction 15 over 28 into a mixed fraction, you divide 15 by 28. Since 15 is less than 28, it remains a proper fraction, which means it can also be expressed as 0 whole parts and 15/28. Therefore, 15 over 28 as a mixed fraction is simply ( 0 \frac{15}{28} ).


Which is greater 28 or 12?

Of those two, 28 is greater than 12


Is 40 less than or greater than negative 28?

It is technically greater


Is 200 percent greater than 28 percent?

Yes, 200 percent is greater than 28 percent.


Is 28 cups less than greater than or equal to 14 pints?

Those two quantities are equal.


Which is greater seven fifteenths or fifteen twenty eighths?

15/28 is greater.


Which fraction is greater 28 over 81 or 7 over 24?

To compare the fractions 28/81 and 7/24, we need to find a common denominator. In this case, the least common multiple of 81 and 24 is 81. We then convert both fractions to have a denominator of 81: 28/81 = 28/81 and 7/24 = 21/81. Now that both fractions have the same denominator, we can compare the numerators directly. Since 28 is greater than 21, the fraction 28/81 is greater than 7/24.


Why is 4 over 7 greater than 4 over 9?

cause 4/7 = 36/63 and 28/63


Is -28 greater than 46?

No. -28 is 74 less than 46 .


Which is greater 28 percent or 200?

28 percent is 0.28 so 200 is greater than it.