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No. Take 12 for example. 1+2=3 but 1x2 doesn't equal 3, it equals 2.

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15y ago

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How is multiplying a 2-digit number by a 1-digit number the same as multiplying a 3-digit number by a 1-digit number and how is it different?

Multiplying a 2-digit number by a 1-digit number involves multiplying the digits in the ones and tens place and then adding the products. Similarly, multiplying a 3-digit number by a 1-digit number follows the same principle, where you multiply the digits in the ones, tens, and hundreds place and then add the products. The main difference is that in the latter case, you are dealing with three sets of digits to multiply and add, whereas in the former, you only have two sets of digits.


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