All you need is knowledge of the sine and cosine ratios in a right angle triangle, and Pythagoras.
Using Pythagoras you can work out the third side of the triangle which means you now know the value of cos B and so can substitute that into 3 cos B - 4 cos³ B and simplify it to see what the result is; if the result is 0, you have shown the required value.
Try working it out before reading any further.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
If you can't work it out by your self, read on:
The sine ratio is opposite/hypotenuse
The cosine ratio is adjacent/hypotenuse
In a right angled triangle Pythagoras holds:
hypotenuse² = adjacent² + opposite²
→ adjacent = √(hypotenuse² - opposite²)
If sin B = 1/2 → opposite = 1, hypotenuse = 2
→ adjacent = √(2² -1²) = √(4 - 1) = √3
→ cos B = adjacent/hypotenuse = (√3)/2
→ 3 cos B - 4 cos³ B = 3 × (√3)/2 - 4 × ((√3)/2)³
= 3(√3)/2 - 4((√3)²/2³)
= 3(√3)/2 - 4(3(√3)/8)
= 3(√3)/2 - 3(√3) × 4/8
= 3(√3)/2 - 3(√3)/2
= 0
sin cubed + cos cubed (sin + cos)( sin squared - sin.cos + cos squared) (sin + cos)(1 + sin.cos)
sec(x)=1/cos(x), by definition of secant.
To show that (cos tan = sin) ??? Remember that tan = (sin/cos) When you substitute it for tan, cos tan = cos (sin/cos) = sin QED
cos(3t) = cos(2t + t) = cos(2t)*cos(t) - sin(2t)*sin(t) = [cos2(t) - sin2(t)]*cos(t) - 2*cos(t)*sin(t)*sin(t) = [cos2(t) - sin2(t)]*cos(t) - 2*cos(t)*sin2(t) then, since sin2(t) = 1 - cos2(t) = [2*cos2(t) - 1]*cos(t) - 2*cos(t)*[1 - cos2(t)] = 2*cos3(t) - cos(t) - 2*cos(t) + 2*cos3(t) = 4*cos3(t) - 3*cos(t)
Sin[x] = Cos[x] + (1/3)
1/ Tan = 1/ (Sin/Cos) = Cos/Sin = Cot (Cotangent)
-1
either cos OR tan-sin equals zero socos=0 at pi/2 and 3pi/2ortan=sin which is impossibleim not sure though
cos pi over four equals the square root of 2 over 2 This value can be found by looking at a unit circle. Cos indicates it is the x value of the point pi/4 which is (square root 2 over 2, square root 2 over 2)
The derivative of cos(x) equals -sin(x); therefore, the anti-derivative of -sin(x) equals cos(x).
It would be 1 over square root 5.
No, but cos(-x) = cos(x), because the cosine function is an even function.