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Is 16 percent equivalent to 32 over 200?

Updated: 8/19/2019
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Wiki User

13y ago

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Yes. We can use division to solve this. Since all percentages are based off 100%, we need to get 32/200 to a number over 100 (how percentages are formed).

32/200 - To get this to 100 we can see both numbers can be divided by 2.

(32/2)/(200/2) = 16/100.

16% is the same as 16/100.

So therefore 16% is equivalent to 32/200.

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13y ago
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Q: Is 16 percent equivalent to 32 over 200?
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