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Is 16 to 40 equivelant to 2 to 5?

Wiki User

∙ 2011-02-19 05:18:45

Best Answer

Dividing 16 and 40 by 8 each, we get 2 and 5. Hence 16 and 40 are multiples of 8 which result in the simplified 2 and 5.

Wiki User

∙ 2011-02-19 05:18:45

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Q: Is 16 to 40 equivelant to 2 to 5?

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Related questions

What is 2 out of 5 of 40?

2/5 of 40 = 16

What is the prime factorization of 40 and 16?

They are: 2*2*2*5 = 40 and 2*2*2*2 = 16 or as 23*5 = 40 and 24 = 16

What is the simplest form of 16 over 40?

2/5

What is 5 over 8 add 2 over 5?

5/8 = 25/40 2/5 = 16/40 25/40 + 16/40 = 41/40

What is 16 over 40 as a percent?

16/40 or 2/5 = 40%

What is 2 5ths of 40?

2/5 of 40 is 16.

What is 2 fiths of 40?

It is: 2/5 of 40 = 16

What is 16 out of 40 in a fraction?

It is: 16/40 = 2/5 simplified

What is 16 40 expressed in Lowe's terms?

16/40=2/5

How can 16 over 40 be reduces?

Yes 16/40 = 2/5

What is 40 as a fraction?

40/1 2/5 is not correct because 2/5 equals 16/40

Can you simplify 16 over 40?

Yes and it is 16/40 = 2/5 simplified

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