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no its more than one half-- 26 over 52 would be one half. It is not because 36/52 means 36 divided by 52, and 36 divided by 52 or 36/52 is ≈ 0.69230769 and 1/2 is 0.50 and 0.69230769 is more than 0.50.

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โˆ™ 2009-11-07 16:51:55
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Algebra

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Q: Is 36 over 52 less than one half?
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