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Answered 2009-11-07 16:51:55
no its more than one half-- 26 over 52 would be one half. It is not because 36/52 means 36 divided by 52, and 36 divided by 52 or 36/52 is ≈ 0.69230769 and 1/2 is 0.50 and 0.69230769 is more than 0.50.
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