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Yes because there is no legit remainder. If you do 4 divided by 2 you get 2 with a 0 remainder or no remainder.

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Q: Is a remainder of 0 the same as no remainder?
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How do you write 142 in binary system?

Since binary is about 2 digits do the calculatio asmentioned below: We have 146,right.... 1.)Divide it with 2 so is there any remainder ,no, so 0,quotient is 71 2.)Now divide the quotient with 2, now remainder is 1, quotient is,35 3.) Again repeat the same procedure, now remainder is 1, quotient is 17 4.) same process continues,remainder now 1, quotient is 8, 5.)Same, remainder is 0,quotient is 4 6.)Same, remainder is 0,quotient is 2 7.)Same, remainder is 0,quotient is 1 8.)Same, remainder is 1,quotient is 0. Now atlast consider all the remainders from bottom... You will get 10001110 is your answer in binary.


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