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Yes, it is possible.

Since their boundaries are parallel the relevant equations are of the form y = mx + c1 and y = mx + c2.

Then if c1 > c2, the inequalities must be of the form

y ≥ mc + c1

and

y ≤ mx + c2

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Q: Is it possible for a system of two linear inequalities to have no solution and be parallel?
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