The coefficient of variation should be computed only for data measured on a ratio scale, as the coefficient of variation may not have any meaning for data on an interval scale. Using relative values instead of absolute values can cause the formula to give an incorrect answer.
Of course it is! If the mean of a set of data is negative, then the coefficient of variation will be negative.
Of course it is! If the mean of a set of data is negative, then the coefficient of variation will be negative.
0% to 100%
Yes it is. If all the observations have the same non-zero value then the coefficient of variation will be zero.
Inter-quartile range, other percentile ranges, mean absolute variation, variance, standard error, standard deviation are all possible measures.
A correlation coefficient can only range from -1.0 to 1.0 so a 50 is not possible. Did you mean .5?
Friction= (coefficient of friction)(normal reaction) If you don't have the friction or the coefficient of it I'm sure you must have been given something else. Could you add the exact question to the discussion ?
Yes, it is possible for the coefficient of friction to have a negative value in certain situations, such as when dealing with lubricated surfaces or materials with unique properties.
No. "Absolute" means non-negative.
15
No. Correlation coefficient is measured from +1 to -1. In addition, if the two sets of exam are exactly same, their correlation coefficient is +1.
Yes, it is possible.