The coefficient of variation should be computed only for data measured on a ratio scale, as the coefficient of variation may not have any meaning for data on an interval scale. Using relative values instead of absolute values can cause the formula to give an incorrect answer.
Of course it is! If the mean of a set of data is negative, then the coefficient of variation will be negative.
Of course it is! If the mean of a set of data is negative, then the coefficient of variation will be negative.
0% to 100%
Yes it is. If all the observations have the same non-zero value then the coefficient of variation will be zero.
Inter-quartile range, other percentile ranges, mean absolute variation, variance, standard error, standard deviation are all possible measures.
A correlation coefficient can only range from -1.0 to 1.0 so a 50 is not possible. Did you mean .5?
Friction= (coefficient of friction)(normal reaction) If you don't have the friction or the coefficient of it I'm sure you must have been given something else. Could you add the exact question to the discussion ?
Yes, it is possible for the coefficient of friction to have a negative value in certain situations, such as when dealing with lubricated surfaces or materials with unique properties.
No. "Absolute" means non-negative.
Yes, it is possible to calculate the molar extinction coefficient (ε) from a single absorbance measurement if you have a solution of known concentration. According to Beer-Lambert Law, the relationship is given by A = εcl, where A is the absorbance, c is the concentration, and l is the path length of the cuvette. Rearranging this equation, you can derive ε by using the formula ε = A / (cl), provided you know the absorbance, concentration, and path length.
15
Yes, it is possible.