answersLogoWhite

0

Is one cup equivalent to pint?

Updated: 8/11/2023
User Avatar

Wiki User

13y ago

Best Answer

No it is 1/2 pint.

In US measure, 1 pint = 2 cups And 1 cup = 0.5 pint.

There are 16 US fluid ounces, 2 cups in 1 US pint (473.2 ml).

Although there are 20 Imperial fluid ounces in 1 Imperial pint (568.3 ml), the Imperial system does not have cups, so it is best to use half pints.

User Avatar

Wiki User

12y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar
More answers
User Avatar

Wiki User

12y ago

No 2 cups.

In US measure, 1 pint = 2 cups And 1 cup = 0.5 pint.

There are 16 US fluid ounces, 2 cups in 1 US pint (473.2 ml).

Although there are 20 Imperial fluid ounces in 1 Imperial pint (568.3 ml), the Imperial system does not have cups, so it is best to use half pints.

This answer is:
User Avatar

User Avatar

Wiki User

12y ago

No 2 cups.

In US measure, 1 pint = 2 cups And 1 cup = 0.5 pint.

There are 16 US fluid ounces, 2 cups in 1 US pint (473.2 ml).

Although there are 20 Imperial fluid ounces in 1 Imperial pint (568.3 ml), the Imperial system does not have cups, so it is best to use half pints.

This answer is:
User Avatar

User Avatar

Wiki User

12y ago

No they are not.

In US measure, 1 pint = 2 cups And 1 cup = 0.5 pint.

There are 16 US fluid ounces, 2 cups in 1 US pint (473.2 ml).

Although there are 20 Imperial fluid ounces in 1 Imperial pint (568.3 ml), the Imperial system does not have cups, so it is best to use half pints.

This answer is:
User Avatar

User Avatar

Wiki User

13y ago

1 cup is 240mL or 8 fluid oz in the US Imperial system

2 cups = 1 pint

In the UK 2.5 cups = 1 pint.

This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Is one cup equivalent to pint?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp