Wiki User
∙ 10y agoYes, always. That is the definition of a rational number.
Wiki User
∙ 8y agoYes.
Because that is how a rational number is defined!
I had this name question for homework :| no
The quotient of two nonzero integers is the definition of a rational number. There are nonzero numbers other than integers (imaginary, rational non-integers) that the quotient of would not be a rational number. If the two nonzero numbers are rational themselves, then the quotient will be rational. (For example, 4 divided by 2 is 2: all of those numbers are rational).
Yes.
Any integer divided by a non-zero integer is rational.
Yes, it is.
Yes.
Because that is how a rational number is defined!
Because that is how a rational number is defined!
Yes, by definition.
I had this name question for homework :| no
No.
The quotient of two nonzero integers is the definition of a rational number. There are nonzero numbers other than integers (imaginary, rational non-integers) that the quotient of would not be a rational number. If the two nonzero numbers are rational themselves, then the quotient will be rational. (For example, 4 divided by 2 is 2: all of those numbers are rational).
No.
Yes, as long as the two nonzero numbers are themselves rational. (Since a rational number is any number that can be expressed as the quotient of two rational numbers, or any number that can be written as a fraction using only rational numbers.) If one of the nonzero numbers is not rational, the quotient will most likely be irrational.
Usually not.