2 squared 1 = 4 so the divisibility rule is that it is divisible by 1, 2 and 4.
The rule for 1 and the rule for 3.
There is no easy rule for divisibility by 34.
The divisibility rules of 4 and 9 are combined to make the divisibility rule of 36.
Anything divided by 1 is always itself.
By tautology. If it did not work, it would not be a divisibility rule!
why does the divisibility rule work for 4
there is a divisibility for 24 the rule is you can divide 24 as 6 and 4 i think
What is the divisblity rule by 8
the divisibility rule for 2 is: The number is even;the last digit ends with a 2,4,6,8,10, etc.The divisibility rule fir 3 is: The sum of the number is divisible by 3The divisibility rule for 4 is: The last two digits are divisible by 4The divisibility rule for 5 is: The number ends with a 5 or 0The divisibility rule for 6 is: The sum CAN be divisible by 2 and or 3The divisibility rule for 9 is: The sum of the number is divisible by 9The divisibility rule for 10 is : The number ends with a 0
There is no rule for 7 :P
Able to Be Divided
The divisibility rule for 2 works because the base of our number system, 10, is divisible by 2.
The special divisibility rule of 17 is "Take the difference of the rest of the digits and the last digit times 5." For instance: 17 1 - 7 * 5 = 1 - 35 = -34 which is divisible by 17.
the number is even.
It has to end 00.
it is divisible by5
It is 86
Judging by some of the questions asked on this site, the first rule is that divisibility is a concept that applies only to whole numbers.
1, 2, 4 and 47
13 is a prime number - it can only be divided by 1 and itself (for an integer answer).
1, 2, 3 and 4
1, 2, 3 and 4