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What is true about the mechanical advantage of a machine a it increases with greater friction b it decreases as the input distance increases c it is less than the idle mechanical advantage?
c) It is less than the idle mechanical advantage. The actual mechanical advantage of a machine is always less than the ideal mechanical advantage due to factors like friction and energy losses in the system.
Why are speed ratio and mechanical advantage never the same?
Speed ratio and mechanical advantage are not the same because they are inversely related. Speed ratio is a measure of how much the input speed is amplified or reduced by a machine, while mechanical advantage is a measure of how much the input force is amplified or reduced. A machine that increases speed will have a mechanical advantage less than one, while a machine that increases force will have a mechanical advantage greater than one.
What is true about the mechanical advantage of a machine?
it is less than the ideal mechanical advantage
Can a inclined plane have a mechanical advantage of less than 1?
The mechanical advantage of an inclined plane is equal to length divided by height (l/h). Therefore, if the length is less than than the height, the mechanical advantage would be less than one.
If the output force is less than the input force of a simple machine the mechanical advantage less than one?
it means the mechanical advantage is greater.
If the input force is less than the input force of a simple machine the mechanical advantage is less than one?
it means the mechanical advantage is greater.
Which tyoe of lever always increases mechanical advantage?
A first-class lever always increases mechanical advantage, as the effort arm is longer than the load arm. The mechanical advantage is determined by the ratio of the lengths of the two arms of the lever.
When is mechanical advantage less than 1?
Mechanical advantage is less than 1 when the output force is less than the input force. This means that the machine is not amplifying the force applied and is actually requiring more effort to move the object. Mechanical advantage less than 1 is often seen in situations where the machine is designed to increase distance or speed at the expense of force.
Which if the following machines always has a mechanical advantage of less than 1?
A machine with a mechanical advantage of less than 1 is always a Class 3 lever. In a Class 3 lever, the effort force is applied between the fulcrum and the resistance force, resulting in a mechanical advantage always less than 1.
Why is the mechanical advantage less than that by the given formula?
The mechanical advantage may be less than that calculated by the formula due to factors such as friction, efficiency losses, or flex in the system. Real-world conditions can impact the actual mechanical advantage achieved in a system.
Why is the ama of a machine always less than the ima of a machine?
The actual mechanical advantage (AMA) of a machine is always less than the ideal mechanical advantage (IMA) due to factors such as friction, inefficiencies in the machine's design, and other losses of energy. As a result, the actual output force of a machine is typically less than the input force required to operate it, leading to a lower actual mechanical advantage compared to the ideal mechanical advantage.
What if you want a first-class lever with a mechanical advantage that's less than 1 where would you place the fulcrum why?
If you want a first-class lever with a mechanical advantage less than 1, you should place the fulcrum closer to the load than to the effort. This positioning will result in the load arm being shorter than the effort arm, leading to a mechanical advantage less than 1.
