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What is the difference between x tends to 0 and limit of x tends to 0?
ShrawanNeupane
The difference can probably be stated more explicitly in mathematical terms.
"x tends to 0" typically implies that x is an independent variable of an unstated function. You are evaluating the function as this variable tends to zero; or, limx→0 f(x).
"limit of x tends to 0" instead implies that "x" is the function, and the value of it as you approach some unstated value tends to 0; or, lima→b x(a) = 0 where "b" is the value the function is approaching, whether real or ±infinity.
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What is the difference between unilateral and bilateral laplace transform?
unilateral means limit is 0 to infinite and bilateral means -infinite to +infinite in laplace transform
What is the difference between 12 and 0?
The difference is 12.
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What is limit of 1 -cos x divided by x as x approaches 0?
1
What is the infinite limit of ln 0?
If x --> 0+ (x tends to zero from the right), then its logarithm tends to minus infinity. On the other hand, x --> 0- (x tends to zero from the left) makes no sense, at least for real numbers, because the logarithm of negative numbers is undefined.
What is the difference between unilateral and bilateral laplace transform?
unilateral means limit is 0 to infinite and bilateral means -infinite to +infinite in laplace transform
What is the difference between 1 and 0?
The difference is 1 .
What is the difference between 0 and 7.5?
The difference is 7.5 .
What is the difference between 12 and 0?
The difference is 12.
Why derivative of mod x does not exist graphically?
Because mod(x) is not "smooth at x = 0.Suppose f(x) = mod(x). Then f'(x), if it existed, would be the limit, as dx tends to 0, of [f(x+dx) - f(x)]/dx= limit, as dx tends to o , of [mod(x+dx) - mod(x)]/dxWhen x = 0, this simplifies to mod(dx)/dxIf dx > 0 then f'(x) = -1andif dx < 0 then f'(x) = +1Consequently f'(0) does not exist and hence the derivative of mod(x) does not exist at x = 0.Graphically, it is because at x = 0 the graph is not smooth but has an angle.Because mod(x) is not "smooth at x = 0.Suppose f(x) = mod(x). Then f'(x), if it existed, would be the limit, as dx tends to 0, of [f(x+dx) - f(x)]/dx= limit, as dx tends to o , of [mod(x+dx) - mod(x)]/dxWhen x = 0, this simplifies to mod(dx)/dxIf dx > 0 then f'(x) = -1andif dx < 0 then f'(x) = +1Consequently f'(0) does not exist and hence the derivative of mod(x) does not exist at x = 0.Graphically, it is because at x = 0 the graph is not smooth but has an angle.Because mod(x) is not "smooth at x = 0.Suppose f(x) = mod(x). Then f'(x), if it existed, would be the limit, as dx tends to 0, of [f(x+dx) - f(x)]/dx= limit, as dx tends to o , of [mod(x+dx) - mod(x)]/dxWhen x = 0, this simplifies to mod(dx)/dxIf dx > 0 then f'(x) = -1andif dx < 0 then f'(x) = +1Consequently f'(0) does not exist and hence the derivative of mod(x) does not exist at x = 0.Graphically, it is because at x = 0 the graph is not smooth but has an angle.Because mod(x) is not "smooth at x = 0.Suppose f(x) = mod(x). Then f'(x), if it existed, would be the limit, as dx tends to 0, of [f(x+dx) - f(x)]/dx= limit, as dx tends to o , of [mod(x+dx) - mod(x)]/dxWhen x = 0, this simplifies to mod(dx)/dxIf dx > 0 then f'(x) = -1andif dx < 0 then f'(x) = +1Consequently f'(0) does not exist and hence the derivative of mod(x) does not exist at x = 0.Graphically, it is because at x = 0 the graph is not smooth but has an angle.
What is the difference between division of 0 and division by 0?
nothing
What is the difference between ratinal and irrational?
-1 between 0
What is the limit of trigonometric function csc 2x cos 5x as x tends to zero?
The answer depends on the side from which x approaches 0. If from the negative side, then the limit is negative infinity whereas if from the positive side, it is positive infinity.
Is there a such thing as a negative 0?
No. There is no difference between -0 and +0, so both are called 0.
What is a haemogram-esr?
E.S.R is 79 whereas the limit is between 0-15
