The probability will depend on the underlying distribution, which is not specified.
The probability of drawing the 10 is 1/10 and the probability of rolling a 3 is 1/6. So, the probability of both is 1/10 * 1/6 = 1/60.
If you draw 9 or fewer cards, the probability is 0. If you draw 10 or more card, the probability is 1.
For a four digit pin number: You receive the first PIN number, let's say WXYZ. The probability that the next pin number you receive would match (assuming they are randomly provided), is: For each digit, they are 10 possibilities [0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 8]. The probability that one specific number is chosen is thus of 1/10. For the are four digits, hence four independent selection of one digit, each with a probability of 1/10. The probability of an event, combination of independent events, is the product of the the probability of the independent event. Thus, the probability that the next pin number you receive would match (assuming they are randomly provided), is: 1/10*1/10*1/10*1/10 or 1/10^4 or 0.0001 or 1 out 10000
p = 1 means 100 out of 100 or 100% so .1 means one time in every 10 or 1/10.
.315
the probability of a house will be burglarized is = 5% which is = .05 the probability of a house will NOT be burglarized is = (1 - .05) the probability of a second house will NOT be burglarized is = (1-.05)*(1-.05)= (1-.05)^2 the probability of a third house will NOT be burglarized is= (1-.05)*(1-.05)(1-.05)= (1-.05)^3 so, the probability of NONE = (1-.05)^10 = .598736939 = .5987
Something of Value was created on 1957-05-10.
Consider a binomial distribution with 10 trials What is the expected value of this distribution if the probability of success on a single trial is 0.5?
11 out of 10 11 10
10 what ? Be more specific and post new question.
Probability = 10 is a very serious mistake since the probability of any event can never be greater than 1: so a probability of 10 is obviously a big error.
40 out of 10 is not possible so the probability is 0.
The probability of drawing the 10 is 1/10 and the probability of rolling a 3 is 1/6. So, the probability of both is 1/10 * 1/6 = 1/60.
Time is a continuous variable and so the probability that an event takes any particular value is always 0.
If you draw 9 or fewer cards, the probability is 0. If you draw 10 or more card, the probability is 1.
There is no blanket value. Prices range between 10 cents and hundreds of dollars. For a specific value, ask about a specific coin.
For a four digit pin number: You receive the first PIN number, let's say WXYZ. The probability that the next pin number you receive would match (assuming they are randomly provided), is: For each digit, they are 10 possibilities [0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 8]. The probability that one specific number is chosen is thus of 1/10. For the are four digits, hence four independent selection of one digit, each with a probability of 1/10. The probability of an event, combination of independent events, is the product of the the probability of the independent event. Thus, the probability that the next pin number you receive would match (assuming they are randomly provided), is: 1/10*1/10*1/10*1/10 or 1/10^4 or 0.0001 or 1 out 10000