Alright these are two different independent trials. Therefore u take the probabilityof the first times the probability of the second so 3/6 times 3/6 and u get 9/36=1/4=.25=25%
If you keep rolling the die, then the probability of rolling a 6 and then a 1 on consecutive rolls is 1.The probability is 1/36 for the first two throws.
1 in 36.
The probability of not rolling it ever is 0.For n rolls it is (5/6)n sofor 10 rolls it is 0.1615for 20 rolls it is 2.608*10-2for 100 rolls it is 1.207*10-8 and so on.
It is 6/36 = 1/6
It is 1/36.
If you keep rolling the die, then the probability of rolling a 6 and then a 1 on consecutive rolls is 1.The probability is 1/36 for the first two throws.
1 in 36.
It is a certainty. If the die is rolled often enough, the probability that two consecutive rolls show a six is 1.
1/6,3/6 ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- The probability of rolling a 2 is: P(2) = 1/6 The probability of rolling an even number is: P(even) = 1/2 The result on the second roll is independent of the result in the first roll. The probability of rolling a 2 and then rolling an even number is: P(2,even no.) = (1/6) ∙ (1/2) = 1/12 = 0.08333... ≈ 8.33%
I understand this to mean, what is the probability of getting 4, then 5 then 1? 1/6 x 1/6 x 1/6 = 1/216
With a fair die, it is 1/216 in three rolls, but the probability increases to 1 (a certainty) as the number of rolls is increased.
The probability of not rolling it ever is 0.For n rolls it is (5/6)n sofor 10 rolls it is 0.1615for 20 rolls it is 2.608*10-2for 100 rolls it is 1.207*10-8 and so on.
if you multiply the number of rolls you did you will get the answer
The probability of getting an even number on at least one of the 3 rolls is 7/8.
If the die is rolled often enough, the probability is 1. With only two rolls of a fair die, the probability is 1/6.
The number of 6s in 37 rolls of a loaded die and binomial.
It is 6/36 = 1/6