Q: What is thevalue of mode when all values are different?

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If all the members of a set are different values, there is no mode.

The mean, median, and mode are all measures of central tendency. For symmetrical distributions they all have the same value. For assymetrical distributions they have different values. The mean is the average and the mode is the most likely value.

A mean is an average (add up all the values and divide by the number of values). The mode is the most frequently appearing value.

You cannot. You have two choices - neither of which are particularly enlightening: If there are other values that could have appeared but did not, then each one of the observed values is a mode (they appeared more often than the ones that had zero appearances); or If there were no such vales, you have no modes.

I wouldn't, I would just say that there is no unique mode. While it is true that if all numbers have a frequency of 1 then every value is the mode, however this provides no analytical insight and thus it is pointless to say that all values are the mode. However it would be wise to note that if there is no mode then there is a uniform distribution which would indicate that all values are equally likely.

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If all the members of a set are different values, there is no mode.

The mean, median, and mode are all measures of central tendency. For symmetrical distributions they all have the same value. For assymetrical distributions they have different values. The mean is the average and the mode is the most likely value.

There is no mode if all of the numbers are different.

A mean is an average (add up all the values and divide by the number of values). The mode is the most frequently appearing value.

You cannot. You have two choices - neither of which are particularly enlightening: If there are other values that could have appeared but did not, then each one of the observed values is a mode (they appeared more often than the ones that had zero appearances); or If there were no such vales, you have no modes.

I wouldn't, I would just say that there is no unique mode. While it is true that if all numbers have a frequency of 1 then every value is the mode, however this provides no analytical insight and thus it is pointless to say that all values are the mode. However it would be wise to note that if there is no mode then there is a uniform distribution which would indicate that all values are equally likely.

No, they need not.

Yes.But only if the mode exists.If all the values in the dataset appear the same number of times there is no mode.

All three numbers are the mode.

Mean = average formed by adding values together and dividing by the total number of values Mode = the most popular value Median = line up all values in order and take the middle value

No. The three averages are mean, mode and median. Mean is the total values divided by the number of values; mode is the number occurring most often; median is the middle value (or the value halfway in between the two middle values) when all values are in order. What you have described is basically the maximum (highest/best value) times the number of values, which has no major use in statistics.

Range, Mean, Median, and Mode all relate to a set of values. To find the range of the set, subtract the smallest value from the largest value . To find the mean, add all the values together and divide by the total number of values in the set. To find the median, sort the values from smallest to greatest, and find the value that is in the middle of the sorted list. To find the mode, simply find the value or values in the set that appear the most often.