No.A single number does not have an LCM, only a set of number can have an LCM. So 6 does not have an LCM and 8 does not have an LCM. If neither number have an LCM, they cannot have the same LCM.However, the C in LCM stands for COMMON and so the LCM is a multiple that they share.6 and 9 have a different LCM to 6 and 8.
The LCM of 4 and 6 is 12.
Not always, sometimes the LCM equals the greatest number, i.e.the LCM of 5 and 6 is 30, the LCM of 3 and 6 is 6.
The LCM of 6 and 6 is 6. They're the same number, therefore they have the exact same multiples.
By knowing that any time one number is a multiple of the other, that number is the LCM. The LCM is 12.
The LCM of the number 6 and 10 would be 2. This is taught in math.
The LCM of the numbers 6 and 12 is 12. This is lowest number that will go into both number evenly.
Without that other number, the LCM is 12 so far.
That's known as the LCM. The LCM of 2 and 3 is 6. The LCM of 30 and 42 is 210. The LCM of 2 and 5 is 10.
Any number that isn't 12.
This one doesn't work. The LCM of 6 and either 32 or 96 is 96, but the GCF is 2.
The least common multiple (LCM) refers to a multiple that is COMMON to two or more numbers. You have only one number in the question! The least multiple of a number is itself.