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17/8 = 21/8

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2011-01-15 16:47:30
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Algebra

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A polynomial of degree zero is a constant term

The grouping method of factoring can still be used when only some of the terms share a common factor A True B False

The sum or difference of p and q is the of the x-term in the trinomial

A number a power of a variable or a product of the two is a monomial while a polynomial is the of monomials

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Q: Which mixed number is the improper fraction 17 eighths equal to?
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Related questions

What improper fraction is equal to two and three eighths?

19/8


What does an improper fraction of 3 and 3 eights?

The whole number part of the mixed number 3 is equal to 24 eighths. 3 x 8 is 24. You already have 3 eighths in the fraction part of the mixed number. So you add 24 eighths to 3 eighths and you get 27 eights. So... 27/8


What is bigger an improper fraction or a mixed number?

If you are using the same number, then the improper fraction and mixed number are equal.


What is 20.875 as a fraction?

Expressed as a mixed improper fraction in its simplest form, 20.875 is equal to 20 7/8, or twenty and seven eighths.


What is 7.375 as an improper fraction?

Expressed as a top-heavy fraction in its simplest form, 7.375 is equal to 59/8 or fifty-nine eighths.


Write 0.375 as a fraction in simplest form?

Expressed as an improper fraction in its simplest form, 0.375 is equal to 3/8 or three eighths.


How do you change a mixed number to a imprper fraction?

A mixed number of the form AB/C, as an improper fraction, is equal to (AC + B)/CA mixed number of the form AB/C, as an improper fraction, is equal to (AC + B)/CA mixed number of the form AB/C, as an improper fraction, is equal to (AC + B)/CA mixed number of the form AB/C, as an improper fraction, is equal to (AC + B)/C


What is the definition for the word improper fraction?

An improper fraction is a fraction whose absolute value if greater than or equal to 1. Thus an improper fraction, with a positive denominator, has a numerator whose absolute value is greater than the denominator.


1540 yard is how many miles?

One mile is equal to 1760 yards. Therefore, expressed as an improper fraction, 1540 yards is equal to 1540/1760 miles. Expressed as an improper fraction in its simplest form, this is equal to 7/8, or seven eighths, of a mile.


What is a fraction equal to a whole number called?

It is an improper fraction as for example 5/1


Can an improper fraction equal one?

No, because the numerator (top number) must always be larger then the denomenator (bottom number) to be an improper fraction. To equal 1, both numbers must be the same.


Can a proper fraction be equal to an improper fraction?

No it can not.

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